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> Western Europe in and post WWII would seem to apply.

What world powers funded revolutionary forces in Western Europe in and post WWII?



The United States and the Soviet Union facilitated the overthrow of Hitler, Mussolini, and associated puppet governments in Europe during WWII and reconstructed the affected countries or their successor states after the war. Those which remained in the US sphere of influence seemed to do fairly well.


How is any of this funding "revolutionary forces"? Retaking Western Europe from the Nazis wasn't a revolution. It was just restoring those countries to the governments that had been kicked out when the Nazis conquered them.


How did the Nazis conquer Germany in your opinion? The point applies at least there.


> How did the Nazis conquer Germany in your opinion?

By winning the popular vote in an election. No revolution at all.

> The point applies at least there.

Even leaving aside the above, the point would only apply if you are claiming that Nazi Germany promoted "peace and prosperity" in Western Europe.


There’s an argument to be made that the nazi Party never won an actual free election.

https://www.washingtonpost.com/opinions/hitler-was-not-voted... is a good example of the reasoning.


Sure, just stipulate that any election with results you don't like isn't "an actual free election". No True Scotsman is indeed alive and well.


Uhm. That’s a nice straw man to support the “no true Scotsman” fallacy. Well done. :-)

I did a bit of digging on Wikipedia. And based on the description in https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/March_1933_German_federal_el... I think the claim that the ‘33 election wasn’t a free election isn’t baseless.

Having your fascist enforcers “monitor” the election, helping elderly people to the voting booths and “helping” them to vote correctly all seem to be indicators that the election is fishy.

And even then, the fascist party didn’t even get a majority…


With the exception of Yugoslavia, that was achieved primarily through invasion.




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